LOS ANGELES—The Los Angeles Lakers announced that starting point guard D’Angelo Russell will miss at least two weeks after receiving a platelet-rich plasma injection in his left knee on Wednesday, November 23.
The minor procedure was performed by Dr. Steve Yoon in Los Angeles. The Lakers have reported that they will re-evaluate Russell in one week.
Russell played college basketball for one season at Ohio State where he averaged 19.3 points, 5.7 rebounds and five assists before being drafted number two overall to the Lakers.
The second-year guard is the Laker’s second leading scorer (16.1 points per game). He has missed two of the team’s last three games due to reported soreness in his left knee.
Los Angeles has performed above expectations after starting the season 8-7 overall under rookie head coach Luke Walton. According to the OC Register, Walton is taking a cautious approach to Russell’s injury.
“We want him to push and be aggressive,” Walton said. “You can’t play at this level by favoring it. If that’s the case where it hurts, then we need to shut him down until he’s healthy. The league is too good only to go halfway and show some of the stuff that you can do because you’re concerned that something might hurt.”
Veteran Jose Calderon started in place of Russell against the Thunder on Tuesday night, and is expected to remain in the starting role moving forward.
The Lakers will face the Golden State Warriors without Russell on Wednesday, November 23.